Thursday, November 10, 2011

Environment sample objective type questions


1.The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word ……………………which means to encircle or surround
a) Environ
b) Oikos
c) geo
d) Aqua

2. The objective of environmental education is
a) Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
b) To teach environmentally appropriate behaviour
c) Create an environmental ethic
d) All the above

3. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the least storage capacity for matter?
a) Atmosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Biosphere

4. Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
a) Atmosphere and Lithosphere
b) Atmosphere and Hydrosphere
c) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere
d) Biosphere and Lithosphere

5. Biosphere is
a) The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b) The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth compromising of all the living things
c) The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d) All the above

6. Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by
a) Volume
b) Weight
c) Density
d) All the three

7. Which of the following is a biotic component of the ecosystem?
a) Fungi
b) Solar light
c) Temperature
d) Humidity

8. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is
a) Bidirectional
b) Cyclic
c) Unidirectional
d) Multidirectional

9. Which pyramid is always upright
a) Energy
b) Biomass
c) Numbers
d) Food chain

10. In complex ecosystem the degree of species diversity is
a) poor
b) high
c) medium
d) none

11The organisms which directly feed on producers are called
a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Decomposers
d) Saprophytes

12. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is called
a) Food chain
b) Carbon cycle
C) Hydrological cycle
D) Anthroposystem

13. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Inorganic nutrients are recycled in an ecosystem
b) Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds
c) Energy is recycled in an ecosystem
d) Respiration process release energy

15. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is
a) Oceans
b) Atmosphere
c) Biosphere
d) Fossil fuels

16. In aquatic ecosystems phyto planktons can be considered as a
a) consumer
b) producer
c) saprotrophic organisms
d) macroconsumer

17. The basic requirements of human beings are provide by
a) Industrialisation
b) Agriculture
c) Nature
d )Urbanisation

18. Environment is the life support system that includes
a) Air
b) Water
c) Land
d) All of the above

19. In an ecosystem biological cycling of materials is maintained by
a) Producer
b) Consumer
c) Decomposer
d) All of the above

20. Organisms which feed directly or indirectly on producers are called
a) Prey
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) Detritus

21. The primary producers in a forest ecosystem are
a) Chlorophyll containing trees and plants
b) Herbivores
c ) Carnivores
d) Bacteria and other micro-organisms

22. Abiotic component includes
a) soil
b) temperature
c) water
d) All the above

23. Which of the following statements is true
a) Green plants are self nourishing
b) Producers depends on consumers

c) Biotic components includes all non-living components
d) Herbivores depend on carnivores

24. Primary consumer is
a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Macro consumers
d) Omnivores

25. A predator is
a) An animal that is fed upon
b) An animal that feeds upon another animal
c) Animal that feeds upon both plants and animals
d) A primary consumer
26. Access to food is mainly determined by
a) Household income
b) Food assistance programmes
C) Human resources
d) Society/community

27. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from
a) Greek
b) French
c) Spanish
d) English

28. Which among the following is a climatic factor?
a) pressure
b) humidity
c) temperature
d) all of the above

29. The major atmospheric gas layer in stratosphere is
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Ozone
d) Helium

30. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth surface?
b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere

31.Which of the following is the terrestrial ecosystem?

b) grassland
c) desert
d) all of the above

32. Ecological pyramids are studies of
a) pyramid numbers
b) pyramid of biomass
c) pyramid of energy
d) all of the above

33. World environment day is on
a) 5th may
b) 5th june
c) 18th july
d) 16th august

34. Factors responsible for balanced eco-system are
a) balance between predator and prey
b) balance between vegetation, herbivores and carnivores
c) balance between competing species and biotic fators
d) all of the above

35. Which of the following is absorbed by green plants from the atmosphere?
a) carbon dioxide
b) water
c) nutrients
d) all of the above

36. Habitat refers to
a) Physical conditions of the place where organisms live
b) Chemical conditions of the place where organisms live
c) Both a and b
d) None

37. Essential component of social security are
a) Meeting personal growth and development
b) Maintaining natural capital
c) Fairness and equity distribution of costs of resources
d) Community resilience

38. Socio-economic security in environmental aspects involves
a) Fairness and equity distribution costs for complete existing generation
b) Welfare of the present generation
c) Intra and inter generational equity of resources
d) All of the above

39. A food web consists of
a) a portion of food chain
b) an organisms position in a food chain
c) interlocking food chains
d) a set of similar consumers

40. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Man is not dependent on nature
b) Resources are unlimited, so one can use them as per one’s wish
c) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but some percentage of it is lost into the environment
d) Matter can be generated afresh. It need not be recycled or reused

41. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled to ensure food security?
a) Food must be available
b) Each person must have access to it
c) Food utilized/consumed must fulfil nutritional requirements
d) All of the above


1.which of the following is not the environmental effect of industrialisation, in general?
a. solid waste
b. water pollution
c. air pollution
d. economic growth

2. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. soil degradation
d. all of the above

3. Sustainable development means
a. meeting present needs without compromising on future needs
b. progress of human beings
c. balance between human needs and the ability of earth to provide the resources
d. all of the above

4. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is
a. industry should be closed
b. don’t allow new industrial units
c. industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d. industries should be shifted far away from human habitats

5. Mining means
a. to conserve and preserve minerals
b. to check pollution due to mineral resources
c. to extract minerals and ores
d. none

6. E.I.A can be expanded as
a. Environmental and industrial act
b. Environment and impact activities
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental important activity

7. E.I.A is related to
a. Resource conservation
b. Efficient equipment/process
c. Waste minimization
d. all of the above

8.In order to protect health of the people living along the adjoining areas of roads, one should
a. Plant trees alongside of the roads
b. Not allow diesel driven vehicles
c. Shift them (people) to other places
d. None of the above

9. The pollution caused by transportation/vehicular activities depends on
a. Type of the vehicle’s engine
b. Age of the vehicle
c. Traffic congestion
d. All of the above

10. Sustainable development will not aim at
a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and social benefits available in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b. Reasonable and equally distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated continually
c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations to meet their own needs
d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

11. Which of the following is a key element of EIA?
a. Scoping
b. Screening
c. Identifying and evaluating alternatives
d. All of the above

12. ‘Earth day’ is held every year on
a. June 5th
b. November 23rd
c. April 22nd
d. May 7th

13.Eutrophication is
a. an improved quality of water in lakes
b. a process in carbon cycle
c. the result to accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies
d. a water purification technique

14. Major purpose of most of the Dams around world is
a. Power generation
b. Drinking water supply
c. Flood control
d. Irrigation

15. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agricultural practice?
a. Using chemical fertilizers
b. Using insecticides
c. Organic farming
d. None of the above

16. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is
a. Water pollution
b. Soil degradation
c. Water logging
d. All of the above
17. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains
a. Organic matter
b. Plant nutrients
c. Both a and b
d. none of the above

18. Water logging is a phenomenon in which
a. Crop patterns are rotated
b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c. Erosion of soil
d. None of the above

19. The impact of construction of dams
a. Submerged forest
b. Loss of wild life habitat
c. Damages down stream ecosystem
d. All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is false
a. Soil erosion effects the productivity
b. It takes 300 years for 1 inch of agricultural top soil to form
c. The amount of soil erosion depends on soil type, slope, drainage pattern and crop management practices
d. Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

21. Which of the following statements are true
a. Surface runoff do not carry pesticides into streams
b. Water percolating downwards through agriculture lands carries with it dissolved chemicals and contaminate ground water
c. Present agricultural practice does not contaminate water
d. None of the above

22. Farmers have a tendency to
a. Use optimum quantity of water
b. to over irrigate crops
c. To conserve water
d. All of the above

23. Organic farming is
a. Farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers
b. Enhances biodiversity
c. Promotes soil biological activity
d. All of the above

24. What would you do to prevent environmental damage
a. Plant trees
b. Halt deforestation
c. Control pollution
d. All of the above

25. Environmental impact assessment
a. is the study of feasibility of a project
b. is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human action
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

26. EIA study will help
a. Maximising the benefits without overloading the planets ecosystem
b. To estimate the future needs of the society
c. To smooth implementation of the project
d. To cope up with rapid growth of population

27. Ecosystem is disturbed by housing activity because
a. Large volume of raw materials like brick, stone, timber, cement, steel, plastic etc., are required to be produced
b. Housing is required to provide shelter to growing population
c. Majority of housing projects are concentrated in cities only
d. Standard of living is increased by modern houses

28. Environmental impact of mining
a. Brings order into social setup
b. Devastation of eco-system
c. Present mining activity is a sustainable development
d. Mining has no adverse effect on ecosystem as it is located in remote areas

29. Effect of modern agriculture on soil is due to
a. Erosion
b. Acidification
c. Salinization
d. All

30. Bio-remediation means the removal of contamination from
a. Soil
b. Wastewater
c. Groundwater
d. Both soil and ground water


1. Plants use ………..gas for photosynthesis
a. oxygen
b. methane
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide

2. Deforestation means
a. preservation of forests
b. destruction of forests
c. monocrop cultivation
d. agriculture

3. What percentage of it’s geographical area of a country should be under forest cover
a. 23%
b. 43%
c. 13%

4. About ………% of earth’s surface is covered by water
a. 53%
b. 19%
c. 71%
d. 90%

5. During photosynthesis, trees produce
a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. carbon dioxide

6. Forest prevent soil erosion by binding soil particles in their
a. stems
b. roots
c. leaves
d. buds

7. Major causes of deforestation are
a. shifting cultivation
b. Fuel requirements
c. Raw materials for industries
d. All of these

8. Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinemia) is caused by the contamination of water due to
a. Phosphates
b. Sulphur
c. Arsenic
d. Nitrates

9. Which of the following statements about forests is not correct?
a. Forest reduces soil erosion
b. Provides recreational opportunities
c. Provides a source of economic development
d. None of the above

10. India has largest share of which of the following
a. manganese
b. mica
c. copper
d. diamond

11. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one cause minimum water pollution?
a. nitrogen
b. phosphorous
c. potassium
d. organic matter

12. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per Indian standards
a. 6 to9
b. 6.5 to 7.5
c. 6 to 8.5
d. 6.5 to 8.5

13. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water?
a. 1.0 milligram per litre
b.1.25 milligram per litre
c. 1.50 milligram per litre
d. 1.75 milligram per litre

14. Excess fluorides in drinking water is likely to cause
a. Blue babies
b. Fluorosis
c. taste and colour
d. intestinal irritation

15. Which of the following is a non point source of water pollution

  1. Factories
  2. Sewage treatment plants
  3. Urban and suburban lands
  4. All of the above

16. The movement of carbon between __________ is called carbon cycle
a. Atmosphere & biosphere
b. Atmosphere & hydrosphere
c. Geo-sphere & Atmosphere
d. Biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere & geo-sphere

17. The depletion of trees is causing accumulation of
a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Oxygen

18. Earth’s atmosphere contains ___________ % of oxygen
c .21%

19. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms
a. Ammonium and ammonia
b. Ammonia and nitrogen
c. Nitrate
d. Nitrogen

20. Conversion of ammonium to nitrate by chemical oxidation is termed as
a. Mineralisation
b. Leaching
c. Nitrification
d. De-nitrification

21. Nitrogen fixing bacteria exists in __________ of plants
a. leaf
b. roots
c. stem
d. flower

22. Sulphur occurs in soil and rocks in the form of ______
a. oxides of Zn and Fe
b. Sulphates of Zn and Fe
c. Nitrates of Zn and Fe
d. Sulphides of Zn and Fe

23. Livestock waste release large amount of _____ into the environment
a. Ammonium
b. Ammonia
c. Nitrate
d. NO4

24. Conversion of nitrates into gases of nitrogen is called ________
a. nitrification
b. nitrogen fixing
c. reduction
d. de-nitrification

25. Forest rich area in Karnataka is found in
a. Western ghats
b. Bandipur
c. Nagarhole

26. _________ are referred to as earth’s lungs
a. Forests
b. Carbon cycles
c. Water sources
d. Mines

27. Among the fresh water available
in the earth, the percentage of surface water is about
  1. 50%
  2. 10%
  3. 5%
  4. Less than 1%

28. Important factor that causes water born disease is
a. Using contaminated sewage for irrigation
b. leaching of untreated faecal and urinary discharges into water bodies
c. discharge of industrial waste water
d. by eating contaminated food

29. Cholera and Typhoid are caused by
a. Worms
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus

30. Major source of fluoride is

  1. river water
  2. toothpaste
  3. bacteria
  4. fungus

31. Hepatitis is caused by
a. protozoa
b. virus
c. bacteria
d. fungus

32. Excessive nitrate in drinking water causes
a. Fever
b. Cough and cold
c. Blue babies
d. Gastro-Enteritis

33. Mineral resources are
a. renewable
b. available in plenty
c. non-renewable
d. equally distributed

34. Control of water borne diseases can be achieved effectively by
a. Treatment of diseases
b. By consuming mineral water
c. By proper treatment of waste water & protecting the source
of water
d. By vaccination

35. Which of the following is not a natural mineral?
a. Asbestos
b. Feldspar
c. Phosphate
d. Nitrogen

36. Forests are extremely important because they
a. Provide clean water and clean air
b. Provide habitat for wildlife
c. Provide recreation and a change from hectic urban life
d. All of the above

37. Deforestation means
a. Conversion of forest land for agricultural/pasture/homes etc..,
b. Creation of new forest land for the wild life
c. Planting trees in the cities
d. Not managing the forest properly
38. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth containing:
a. 95% of earth’s water
b. 85% of earth’s water
c. 97% of earth’s water
d. 75% of earth’s water

39. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle
a. Precipitation
b. Infiltration
c. Transpiration
d. Perspiration

40. The ground water depends on
a. Amount of rain fall
b. Geological formations
c. Run off
d. All of the above

41. In India ground water is rich in
a. plains of river Kaveri and Krishna
b. the plains of Netravati and Kapila
c. the gangetic plains
d. the deccan plateau

42. The required iron content in water as specified by BIS is
a. 330 mg/l
b. 30 mg/l
c. 3 mg/l
d. 0.3 mg/l

43. pick out which is not concerned to carbon cycle
a. Respiration
b. Combustion of fossil fuels
c. Photo-synthesis
d. Transpiration

44. Fixation of nitrogen is done by
a. lightening
b. fixing bacteria
c. fertilizer factory
d. All of the above

45. Sulphur dioxide is used in
a. Paper manufacture
b. Textile manufacture
c. Processing of fossil fuels
d. Both (a) and (b)


1. Which of the following is considered as an alternate fuel ?
a. CNG
b. Kerosene
c. Coal
d. Petrol

2. Solar radiation consists of
a. UV
b. Visible light
c. Infrared
d. All of these

  1. Reduction in usage of fuels cannot be brought by:
  1. using alternate fuels
  2. changing lifestyles
  3. reducing car taxes
  4. both (a) and (b)

  1. Which of the following is a hazard of a nuclear power plant
  1. Accident risk when tankers containing fuel cause spill
  2. Radioactive waste of the power plant remains highly toxic for centuries
  3. Release of toxic gases during processing
  4. All of these

  1. The most important fuel used by nuclear power plant is
  1. U-248
  2. U-235
  3. U-238
  4. U-236

  1. Biogas is produced by
  1. Microbial activity
  2. Harvesting crop
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above

  1. Oil and gas are preferred because
  1. Strong smell
  2. Cheap
  3. Easy transportation
  4. All of these

  1. Biomass power generation uses
  1. Crops
  2. Animal dung
  3. Wood
  4. All of these

  1. Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in the year
  1. 1984
  2. 1952
  3. 1986
  4. 1987

  1. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
  1. Fossil fuels
  2. Solar energy
  3. Tidal wave energy
  4. Wind energy

  1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy resources
  1. highly polluting
  2. high waste disposable cost
  3. unreliable supply
  4. high running cost

  1. OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts
  1. energy in large tides of ocean to generate electricity
  2. energy in ocean waves to generate electricity
  3. energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity
  4. energy in the fast moving ocean currents to generate electricity

  1. Which of the following source of energy is less eco-friendly?
  1. Bio-gas
  2. Wind
  3. Solar
  4. Nuclear

  1. India’s position in the Bio-gas plants globally
  1. 5th
  2. 2nd
  3. 4th
  4. 7th

  1. Solar energy is stored in
  1. carbon-carbon bonds
  2. green leaves
  3. fossil fuels
  4. biomass

  1. Which resources are in-exhaustible?
  1. renewable
  2. fossil fuel
  3. non-renewable
  4. mineral

  1. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following
  1. Coal
  2. Fuel cells
  3. Wind power
  4. Wave power

  1. Electromagnetic radiation can cause
  1. Plague
  2. Malaria
  3. Cancer
  4. Dengue fever

  1. Harnessing the wind energy is done by
  1. Wind mill
  2. Ball mill
  3. Flour mill
  4. Pig mill

  1. Wind farms are located in
  1. River basin
  2. Plain area
  3. Hilly area
  4. Valley areas

  1. Wind energy generation depends on
  1. Direction of wind
  2. Velocity of wind
  3. Humidity
  4. Valley areas

  1. With a minimum resource maximum energy can be created by
  1. Solar radiation
  2. Nuclear fuels
  3. Wind
  4. Tidal waves

  1. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by
  1. Solar photo voltaic system
  2. Solar diesel hybrid system
  3. Solar thermal system
  4. Solar air heater

  1. in hydropower plants power is generated by
  1. Hot springs
  2. Wind
  3. Sun
  4. Water

  1. Hydrogen energy can be tapped through
  1. Heat pumps
  2. Fuel cells
  3. Photo-voltaic cells
  4. Gasifiers

  1. Problems of hydrogen fuel are
  1. Storage and distribution
  2. Availability of hydrogen
  3. Creates pollution
  4. None of the above

  1. Nuclear power is being produced from
  1. Carbon-14
  2. Nuclear fission
  3. Petroleum combustion
  4. Natural gas

  1. Nuclear fusion uses the following as a fuel
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Oxygen
  4. Nitrogen

  1. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is used?
  1. Coal
  2. Petroleum
  3. Oil
  4. Biomass

  1. Biomass consists of
  1. Lignin
  2. Hemi-cellulose
  3. Cellulose
  4. All of the above

  1. Which of the following is used as moderator in nuclear fuel
  1. Graphite
  2. Helium gas
  3. Heavy water
  4. All of the above

  1. Nuclear waste is active for
  1. 5 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 50 years
  4. Centuries

  1. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at
  1. Bhadravathi
  2. Sandur
  3. Raichur
  4. Kaiga

  1. Biomass energy in green plants is produced in presence of
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Water
  3. Sunlight
  4. All of the above

  1. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by
  1. Burning
  2. Cooling
  3. Sublimation
  4. Melting

  1. Natural gas contains
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Methane
  4. Nitrogen

  1. In which place in India the tidal energy has been experimented
  1. Goa
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh

  1. Highest producer of oil and petroleum is
  1. Middle east countries
  2. America
  3. China
  4. India

  1. Cow dung can be used
  1. as manure
  2. for production of biogas
  3. as fuel
  4. all of the above

  1. The source of electromagnetic radiation is
  1. Sun
  2. Moon
  3. Water
  4. Stars

  1. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of
  1. Methane and carbon dioxide
  2. Methane and hydrogen sulphide
  3. Methane and carbon monoxide

  1. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate
  1. Bio-diesel
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Bio-ethanol
  4. Bio-methanol


  1. Environmental pollution is due to
  1. rapid urbanisation
  2. deforestation
  3. a forestation
  4. a & b

  1. Which of the following is air pollutant
  1. CO
  2. O2
  3. N2
  4. All

  1. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution
  1. Volcanic eruption
  2. Solar flair
  3. Earth quake
  4. All

  1. Which of the following are biodegradable pollutants
  1. Plastics
  2. Domestic sewage
  3. Detergent
  4. All

  1. Mining practices lead to
  1. Population growth
  2. Rapid urbanisation
  3. Loss of fertile grazing land
  4. None of these

  1. Which of the following is source of fly ash
  1. Vehicular exhaust
  2. Sewage
  3. Thermal power plant
  4. All

  1. The liquid waste from bath and kitchens is called
  1. Sullage
  2. Domestic sewage
  3. Storm waste
  4. Run off

  1. Noise pollution can be minimised by
  1. Urbanisation
  2. Maintaining silence
  3. Reducing noise at source
  4. None

  1. BOD means
  1. Biochemical oxygen demand
  2. Chemical oxygen demand
  3. Biophysical oxygen demand
  4. All

  1. Which of the following industry generates coloured waste?
  1. Software industry
  2. Textile industry
  3. Bio-medical industry
  4. None

  1. Physical pollution of water is due to
  1. Dissolved oxygen
  2. Turbidity
  3. pH
  4. None of these

  1. Which of the following source is surface water?
  1. Springs
  2. Streams
  3. Deep wells
  4. All

  1. Deforestation can
  1. Increase the rain fall
  2. Increase soil fertility
  3. Introduce silt in the rivers
  4. None of these

  1. Which of the following non-point source of water pollution?
  1. Factories
  2. Sewage treatment plants
  3. Urban and sub-urban lands
  4. All of the above

  1. Sound beyond which of the following level can be regarded as pollutant
  1. 40dB
  2. 80dB
  3. 120dB
  4. 150dB

  1. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution of water bodies
  1. Sewage treatment plants
  2. Thermal power plants
  3. Solid water disposal
  4. All

  1. Smog is
  1. A natural phenomenon
  2. Combination of smoke and fog
  3. Colourless
  4. All of the above

  1. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting
  1. Electrostatic precipitator
  2. Wet scrubber
  3. Catalytic converter
  4. All of the above

  1. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide is true?
  1. Forms complex with haemoglobin
  2. Forms complex with leg-haemoglobin
  3. Formed by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels
  4. Both a & c

  1. Definition of noise is
  1. Loud sound
  2. Unwanted sound
  3. Constant sound
  4. Sound of high frequency

  1. Noise pollution is controlled by
  1. Reducing the noise at the source
  2. Preventing it’s transmission
  3. Protecting the receiver
  4. All

  1. Noise pollution limit at residential areas
  1. 45 dB
  2. 80 dB
  3. 55 dB
  4. 90 dB

  1. Noise pollution limits in industrial areas
  1. 45 dB
  2. 80 dB
  3. 65 dB
  4. 90 dB

  1. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
  1. Plastics
  2. Domestic sewage
  3. Detergent
  4. a & c

  1. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant
  1. CO
  2. SO2
  3. Ozone
  4. CO2

  1. Pesticides causes
  1. Eye irritation
  2. Skin irritation
  3. Respiratory ailments
  4. All of the above

  1. Blarring sounds known to cause
  1. Mental distress
  2. High cholesterol
  3. Neurological problems
  4. All of the above

  1. Which of the following is major cause of soil pollution?
  1. Accident involving vehicles that are transporting
  2. Pesticides and chemical fertilizers
  3. Improper solid waste disposal
  4. All of the above

  1. Minimata disease” is caused due to
  1. Lead
  2. Arsenic
  3. Mercury
  4. Cadmium


  1. The major automobile pollutants include
  1. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
  2. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and CH4
  3. CO, NOx, Hydrocarbons and SPM
  4. CO, NOx, Freon and SPM

  1. Petroleum based vehicles emit traces of
  1. CO & NOx
  2. SPM
  3. Aldehydes
  4. CH4

3. Heavy duty diesel vehicles contribute more
a. NOx
b. particulate matter
c. CO
d. Both a and b

    1. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are
  1. CO and hydrocarbons
  2. CO and NOx
c. CH4 and CO2
d. all the above

    1. The 4-stroke engines produce less of the following as compared
to 2-stroke engines
  1. CO and hydrocarbons
  2. NOx and SO2
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

6. Alternative eco-friendly fuel for automobile is:
a. Petrol
b. diesel
c. CNG
d. Kerosene

7. Increase in asthma attacks has been linked to high levels of :
  1. Nitrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Air-borne dust particles
  4. All of the above

8. Population explosion will cause
a. Bio-diversity
b. Stress on ecosystem
c. more employment
d. none of these

9. Which of the following is having high population density
a. India
b. China
c. USA
d. Western Europe

10. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanisation
a. Air pollution
b. Thermal pollution
c. Solid waste production
d. Noise pollution

11. Which of the following is the facility that the urban people enjoy?
a. Better communication access
b. better quality of air
c. large land at cheap rates
d. none of these

12. Urbanisation is
a. Local environment issue
b. National environment issue
c. Both a and b
d. not at all an issue

13. Which of the following is an ill effect of urbanisation?
a. Decrease in area of agricultural land
b. Loss of greenery
c. Loss of water bodies
d. All of the above

14. The major cause of global population growth in 18th and 19th centuries
    1. Decrease in death rates
    2. Decrease in birth rates
    3. Industrial revolution
    4. None of these

15. The world population in 2000 was around
a. 8 billion
b. 6.1 billion
c. 7.1 billion
d. 5 billion

16. The average life expectancy around the world is currently
a. Decreasing
b. Increasing
c. Not changing
d. Stabilizing

17. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?
a. Increased resource consumption
b. Environmental pollution
c. Food and energy shortages
d. none of these

18. The major objectives of family welfare programs in India
  1. Disease control
  2. Population growth rate control
  3. Employment generation none of these
  4. None of these

19. Population ageing is
a. The increase in the average age of the population
b. The result of decreased death and birth rates
c. The trend where more people live to reach old age while fewer children are born
d. all of the above

20. Which of the following is not a population characteristic
a. Doubling time
b. Total fertility rate
c. Gross domestic product growth rate
d. Infant mortality rate

21. Demography is the study of
a. Animal behaviour
b. Population growth
c. River
d. None of these

22. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming
a. Reducing fossil fuel consumption
b. Planting more trees
c. De-forestation
d. None of the above

23. The meaning of global warming is
a. Increase in the temperature of climate
b. A planet hotter than earth
c. Solar radiation
d. Cooling effects

24. Global warming may bring about the following changes
In the climate of the earth
    1. Increase in the rain fall
    2. Desertification
    3. Drought
    4. All of the above

25. Which green house gas is known as colourless, non-flammable, sweetish odour and laughing gas?
a. Methane
b. CO2
c. Nitrous Oxide
d. Sulphur hexa fluoride

26. The first major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was
a. Water act
b. Air act
c. Environmental act
d. Noise pollution act

27. Which of the following substantially reduces CO2 emission from automobiles?
a. Bio fuels like ethanol and bio diesel
b. fossil fuels like coal and lignite
c. Nuclear elements like uranium
d. Voltaic cells

28. The international protocol to protect the ozone layer is
a. Vienna protocol
b. Kyoto protocol
c. Cartagena protocol
d. Montreal protocol

    1. The protocol that reduces
  1. Kyoto protocol
  2. Cartagena protocol
  3. Montreal protocol
  4. Vienna protocol

    1. population explosion will cause
  1. socio economic problems
  2. food scarcity
  3. energy crisis
  4. all of these

    1. Which of the following is not a green house gas
  1. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons
  2. Methane
  3. CO2
  4. SO2

    1. Global warming could affect
  1. climate
  2. increase in sea levels
  3. melting of glaciers
  4. all of the above

    1. Primary cause of acid rain around the world is due to
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Sulphur dioxide
  3. Carbon monoxide
  4. Ozone

    1. Which of the following is not a solution for global warming?
  1. Reducing fossil fuel consumption
  2. Planting more trees
  3. Deforestation
  4. None of the above

    1. Which of the following is an air pollutant
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Particulate matter


  1. The pH value of acid rain water is
  1. 5.7
  2. 7.0
  3. 8.5
  4. 6.0

  1. Which of the following is the remedial measure for acid rain?
  1. reducing the release of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur into the atmosphere
  2. use of coal, free from sulphur
  3. use of electro-static precipitator and catalytic converters
  4. all of the above

  1. The primary cause of acid rain around the world is
  1. CFC
  2. SO2
  3. CO
  4. O3

  1. Acid rain can be controlled by
  1. Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions
  2. Increasing number of lakes
  3. Increasing the forest cover
  4. Reducing oxygen emission

  1. Atmospheric oxidation of SO2 and SO3 is influenced
  1. sunlight
  2. humidity
  3. presence of hydrocarbons
  4. all of the above

  1. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj mahal is due to
  1. Global warming
  2. Air pollution
  3. Ozone depletion
  4. Afforestation

  1. The effect of acid rain is
  1. reduces soil fertility
  2. increases atmospheric temperature
  3. causing respiratory problems
  4. skin cancer

  1. The process of movement of nutrients from the soil by the acid rain is called
  1. Transpiration
  2. Evaporation
  3. Leaching
  4. Infiltration

  1. Ozone layer is present on
  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere

  1. Which of the following statements about Ozone is true
  1. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
  2. Ozone protects us from the harmful uv radiation of sun
  3. Ozone is highly reactive
  4. All of the above
  1. Major compound responsible for the destruction of stratospheric ozone layer is
  1. Oxygen
  2. CFC
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Methane

  1. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is around
  1. 200 DU
  2. 300 DU
  3. 400 DU
  4. 500 DU

  1. Ozone layer thickness is measured in
  1. PPM
  2. PPB
  3. Decibels
  4. Dobson units

  1. Chloro fluoro carbons(CFC) are
  1. non-toxic
  2. non-flammable
  3. non-carcinogenic
  4. all of the above

  1. Ozone layer absorbs
  1. UV rays
  2. Infra red rays
  3. Cosmic rays
  4. CO

  1. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain
  1. results in killing fish
  2. causes stone leprosy
  3. leaches nutrients from the soil
  4. cause cataract

  1. Formation of ozone layer is explained by
  1. Rosenmund reaction
  2. Handerson’s reaction
  3. Chapman’s reaction
  4. Perkin’s reaction

  1. Each chlorine radical can destroy the following number of ozone molecules
  1. 1000
  2. 10,000
  3. 1,00,000
  4. 100

  1. Freons are
  1. HFC
  2. CFC
  3. NFC
  4. Hydrocarbons

  1. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?
  1. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
  2. Ozone is highly reactive
  3. Ozone protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun
  4. All of the above

  1. Ozone depletion causes
  1. Snow blindness
  2. Photo-chemical smog
  3. Acid rain
  4. Vomiting

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about animal husbandry?
    1. it is a part of agricultural activity
    2. it is livestock production
    3. it is breeding, feeding and management of animals
    4. it is protection of wild life

  1. Which of the following is the purpose of animal husbandry?
    1. conservation of animal husbandry
    2. production of meat
    3. conservation of wild life
    4. conservation of forests

  1. Domestic animals are used for
a. dairy products
b. production of fibre
c. production of meat
d. all of these

  1. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to
    1. Urbanisation
    2. Industrialisation
    3. Increase in vehicle population
    4. None of the above

  1. Ozone hole was first discovered over
    1. Arctic
    2. Antarctica
    3. Tropical region
    4. Africa

  1. CFCs have been used as
    1. solvent
    2. refrigerants
    3. blowing agents for polymer forms
    4. all of these

  1. World ozone day is being celebrated on
    1. May 7th
    2. July 14th
    3. September 16th
    4. September 11th

  1. Bhopal gas tragedy caused due to leakage of
    1. Methyl Iso Cyanate(MIC)
    2. Sulphur dioxide
    3. Mustard gas
    4. Methane

  1. Animal husbandry results in
    1. Global warming
    2. Acid rain
    3. Ozone depletion
    4. None of these


  1. Environmental (protection) Act was enacted in the year
  1. 1986
  2. 1989
  3. 1994
  4. 1998

  1. The Air(prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year
  1. 1981
  2. 1974
  3. 1994
  4. 2004

  1. The water(prevention & control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year
  1. 1986
  2. 1974
  3. 1994
  4. 2004

  1. The wild life protection was enacted in the year
  1. 1986
  2. 1974
  3. 1994
  4. 1972

  1. The Forest (conservation) Act was enacted in the year
  1. 1986
  2. 1974
  3. 1980
  4. 1972

  1. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
  1. The wild life protection act
  2. The air act
  3. The noise pollution act
  4. None of the above

  1. The central pollution control board was established under the provision of:
a. Environmental protection act 1986
b. Air (prevention and control) act 1981
c. Water(prevention and control of pollution)act 1974
d. none of the above

  1. The Karnataka state pollution control board(KSPCB) was established in the year
  1. 1974
  2. 1982
  3. 1986
  4. 1976

  1. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
  1. Govt. of India
  2. NGOs
  3. Individual
  4. All

  1. Earth day’ is observed on:
  1. 1st December
  2. 5th June
  3. April 22nd
  4. 1st January

  1. Which of the following is NGO:
  1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
  2. CPCB
  3. KSPCB
  4. None

  1. Which of the following is empowered to take measure to protect & improve environment as per the Environment protection act
  1. Central Govt.
  2. State government
  3. Corporation
  4. None

  1. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents?
  1. Centre for science and environment
  2. State pollution control board
  3. Indian environmental association
  4. None

  1. The leader of the chipko movement is:
  1. Sunderlal Bahuguna
  2. Medha Patkar
  3. Vandana Shiva
  4. Suresh Heblikar

  1. The environmental(protection)act 1986 deals with:
  1. Water
  2. Air
  3. Soil
  4. All

  1. The objectives of the wild life protection act 1972 is:
  1. To preserve the wild life bio-diversity
  2. To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
  3. Protection & conservation of wild life
  4. All

  1. The tiger conservation project was started in:
  1. 1973
  2. 1984
  3. 1999
  4. 2004

  1. The goal of National parks & wild life sanctuaries is:
  1. To promote international trading of animals and their products
  2. To evacuate tribal people from forest
  3. Conservation of wild life
  4. None of the above

  1. Environmental education is targeted to:
  1. General public
  2. Professional social groups
  3. Technicians & scientists
  4. All

  1. Which of the following animals is endangered species of India?
  1. Black buck
  2. Elephant
  3. Fox
  4. Giraffe

  1. Which state is having highest women literacy in India?
  1. Karnataka
  2. Punjab
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Kerala

  1. An international conference on environmental education was held in December 1982 at:
  1. Kyoto
  2. Vienna
  3. New-Delhi
  4. London

  1. Environmental protection is the fundamental duties of the citizen of India under the article:
  1. 51-A(g)
  2. 48-A
  3. 47
  4. 21

  1. The objective of integrated child development services(ICDS) are:
  1. Immunisation
  2. Health check up & referral services
  3. Pre-school and non formal education
  4. All of the above

  1. ISO-14000 standards deal with:
  1. pollution management
  2. risk management
  3. environmental management
  4. none of the above

  1. World summit on sustainable development was held at
  1. Johannesburg in 2002
  2. Rio de
    janeiro in 1992
  3. Kyoto in 1994
  4. Stockholm in 2000

  1. An important NGO involved in global environmental protection is
  2. Green peace
  3. WHO
  4. CPCB

  1. The first international earth summit was held at
  1. Johannesburg
  2. Rio de janeiro
  3. Kyoto
  4. Stockholm

  1. Silent valley movement succeeded
  1. Waste management in sea coast
  2. Cancelling the state government hydel project and saving the Lion Tailed Monkeys
  3. Promoting marine fishery business in Kerala
  4. None of the above

  1. The committee which submitted it’s report to Government of India on environmental education is
  1. Tiwari committee b. Mehta committee
  2. Banerjee committee d. Agarwal committee


  1. Sir can i have answers for this questtions

  2. Ultimate question. Can I get the answer, please?

  3. Sir can i have answers for this questtions

  4. can u give the information about these questions like
    these are from which syllabus, academic, book name (theory)?

  5. Where is the answer Mr vijendra Singh

  6. Where is the answer Mr vijendra Singh

  7. Hi Ramesh Sir,
    Please provide the answers, Thanks in advance.

  8. This comment has been removed by the author.

  9. Hello Frnds
    This is Vinee Gemnani
    Here is the answers key of question set of UNIT I

    1-a, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-a, 7-a, 8-c, 9-a, 10-a, 11-a,
    12-a, 13-b, 14-x, 15-b, 16-b, 17-c, 18-d, 19-d, 20-b, 21-a,
    22-d, 23-a, 24-a, 25-a, 26-d, 27-b, 28-d, 29-c, 30-a, 31-a,
    32-c, 33-b, 34-d, 35-a, 36-c, 37-d, 38-d,39-c, 40-c, 41-d

    All the Best


  10. This comment has been removed by the author.